Predictive mean calculation confusion #1820
InfProbSciX
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Looks like the same question as #1761. |
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I do not understand the calculation that happens on this line:
Shouldn't the predictive mean be
k_XZ * k_ZZ^{-1} * inducing_values + \mu_X
?interp_term
seems to calculatek_XZ K_ZZ^{-1/2}
,inducing_values
arevariational_distribution.loc
, so it seems like the computation happening here is justk_XZ * k_ZZ^{>> -1/2 <<} * inducing_values + \mu_X
(isn't there a factor ofK_ZZ^{-1/2}
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